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i'm new to the floyd rose, and shall be acquiring an instrument with one within a few days. naturally i need to know how to use it properly and there is a narking question i have before venturing to use it.
the question is, way back in the 60's (i'm an old guy) when i had my first fender strat, they used to have slots for the strings on the machines instead of holes. there was, however, a hole drilled dead center on the machine shaft end, so you had to cut the extra length off the string first, dip it into the hole and then around the slot, and finally wind it around the axle of the machine. i'm sure you know about these.
after ruining 2 or 3 sets of strings (!!) i finally realized that clipping the end off causing the winding of the string to unwind, thus causing the wound strings to completely lose their sound and zing, and become completely dead as per an old, worn-out used string. i solved that by putting a right-angle bend in the string first with my pliers before clipping it (or not clipping it at all).
the question therefore is: with the locking floyd rose trem, it's recommended to clip the ball off the string first before fitting it. how come this doesn't cause the winding to loosen and ruin the string as per my early experiences? or does it? (i don't see anywhere where it's warned to fit the string into the trem's "vise" first and then clip the ball off afterwards, if indeed it is at all possible to do so; it's always advised to clip the ball off first).
can anyone kindly help?
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