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Guitar News Weekly
Edition #239

April 7, 2003

ASK EDLY
Author of Edly's Music Theory for Practical People

Hello and thank you for a wonderful book (EMTfPP). I have a question regarding the definition of a "MAJOR" and "PERFECT" intervals. I have seen some that say not to worry about the designation of Major vs. Perfect that the concept is out-dated. Can we assume then that a Major 3rd is simply the 3rd note of the major scale (from the tonic) and a perfect 5th is simply the 5th note from the tonic of a scale?

Also, when harmonizing a Major scale (C for example). You state the following:
C-E = Major 3rd
D-F = minor 3rd
E-G = minor 3rd

I am very confused at how we are defining a "minor 3rd". My understanding is that an interval is considered minor if the 3rd if flattened. so are we saying that as we progress up the scale, that the tonic changes? That the 3rd in the C major scale is E, that the 3rd in the D major scale (F#) is flattened to F thus follows it is considered a minor? It would appear to be the case for E-G as well since in E major the G is #.

Please tell me if I am on the right track about this. After 10 years of playing but not understanding what I am playing I finally understand how a Major chord becomes minor, Aug, Sus, etc. I just cannot seem to grasp the interval side of the field. If I am correct, is there an easier way to determine whether something is a minor 3rd vs. major 3rd then looking at the tonic and doing the math?

Sincerely:
Luther

Yo Luther

Glad you like the book. And sounds like you're definitely approaching it seriously. Way to go. Having said that, I believe most of your questions are indeed answered in the book, so my answers here will be short. Maybe consider a quick reread of a couple of relevant chapters afterward.

I disagree about perfect vs major & minor intervals. Perfect intervals sound "hollow." Major and minor intervals (3rds & 6ths, at least) sound "sweet" or "warm." Perfect intervals invert to perfect intervals, are lower on the overtone series and have lower/simpler frequency ratios -- 1:1 (PU), 1:2 (P8ve), 2:3 (P5), and 3:4 (P4). Major and minor intervals invert to EACH OTHER, occur higher on the overtone series, and have more complex frequency ratios -- 3:5 (M6), 4:5 (M3), 5:6 (m3), 5:8 (m6).

If all this makes your head spin, sit down, breathe, and remember it's all about the sound. Perfect intervals sound like perfect intervals. Major & minor intervals (3rds & 6ths, at least) sound similar in terms of warmth and consonance. 7ths and 2nd sound similar in terms of tension and dissonance because they invert to each other, and so on.

As to your second question, I suggest you reread chapters 4-8. But here's something to carry you over until then: A M3 consists of four half-steps, whereas a m3 has three. That's the simplest way to think of it, but the least profound. You're right on the verge of getting this. Or maybe you already have, but there a few linger cob webs that need vacuuming.

Going just a bit deeper, when you ask, "Are we saying that as we progress up the scale, that the tonic changes?" No. The tonic stays the same. BUT (this is a big but), in order to determine whether the third is flatted, you have to know what it would be if it WEREN'T flatted. And to do this, you do, indeed use the key of the bottom note of the interval. Therein lies your confusion, to which I hope I haven't just added!

Let me try one more paraphrasing here. You're right on track in everything you say, with a "yellow alert" flag thrown at the phrase "as we progress up the scale, that the tonic changes." Please see above.

You're on the 95 yard line, man, with infinite downs to go. (I'm not into football, so I hope that metaphor is footballically accurate.) You will soon be at a place where the math is "done" as soon as you see the problem, just as it is when you see the following equation:

2+2=

You don't "do the math," because it's embedded. You just know it. Keep up your efforts, and intervals will very soon be the same way for you.

Edly
http://www.edly.com/

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